can we pass a recordset to javascript function ??if yes how

Riax · #1 (**permalink**) 04-01-04, 06:28

hi, can anybody tell me how can we pass a recordset to a fuction in javascript.
plz do respond

Wigz · #2 (**permalink**) 04-07-04, 17:54

Loop over the recordset and fill a JavaScript array with ASP.

<script language="JavaScript">
items = new Array();
<%
IntCount = 0
While NOT rs.EOF
Response.Write "items[" & IntCount & "] = '" & rs("record") & "';" 'Use singles inside doubles if item is type string
IntCount = IntCount + 1
rs.MoveNext
Wend
%>
</script>

rokslide · #3 (**permalink**) 04-07-04, 18:24

you might want to add a vbCrLf at the end of the response.write line just to make it look nice.

Wigz · #4 (**permalink**) 04-07-04, 18:32

Yes ... good point rokslide.

rokslide · #5 (**permalink**) 04-07-04, 18:59

I think you can do something like this also...

Code:

<script language="JavaScript">
items = new Array(
<%
IntCount = 0
While NOT rs.EOF
Response.Write "'" & rs("record") & "'," 'Use singles inside doubles if item is type string
rs.MoveNext
Wend
%>
);
</script>

which is less code and generates less Javascript....

Not sure if the syntax is right but basically you are initalising the javascript array at the same time as declaring it.... I don't have my handy books here to check it out....

Riax · #6 (**permalink**) 04-08-04, 06:26

thanks 4 it

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