I don't think this is a problem, but I am curious as to why this is happening.
I have two machines, lets call them machine A and machine B.
On machine A I have a job that runs. It has 2 steps. The first step runs replication (no problem). The 2nd step (on success of step 1) updates a row in a table via a linked server on Machine B.
So, step 2 is basically:
update b.dbname.dbo.tablename set success=1 where id=1
On machine B, the table that is updated has an update trigger on it that checks the success flag. If the success flag is 1 then it runs a stored procedure that does a bunch of stuff on machine B (this stuff takes about 10 minutes).
This all works great, however if I check the job history on Machine A, it says that step 2 (the update) takes 10 minutes.
Why is this? Shouldn't the update statement be instantaneous? It seems like the update waits for the trigger to fire before returning. Is that correct?
Like I said, its not a problem, but I was just curious as to why the job on machine A waits for the trigger on machine B to complete.